Difference between revisions of "10-327/Homework Assignment 4"

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Thank you kindly. Oliviu.
 
Thank you kindly. Oliviu.
  
RE: 2) Let <math>F :\tilde R^n \rightarrow R^n</math> be defined as <math>F(x)= \prod_{i=1}^{n} \pi_i (x)</math> and let <math>F^{-1} : R^n \rightarrow \tilde R^n</math> be defined as <math>F^{-1}(x)= \prod_{i \in Z_+} f_i (x)</math>  where <math> f_i (x) = \pi_i (x) </math> if <math> 1 \le x \le n </math> and <math> f_i(x)=0 </math> otherwise.  Then both <math> F </math> and <math> F^{-1} </math> are continuous, because we are working in the product topology and the component functions, namely the projection function and constant function are continuous.  Also <math> F </math> is a bijection because <math> F(F^{-1}(x_1, \ldots, x_n))=(x_1, \ldots, x_n)  </math> and <math> F^{-1}(F(x_1, \ldots, x_n, 0,0, \ldots))=(x_1, \ldots, x_n, 0,0, \ldots)  </math>, i.e <math> F </math> has a left and right inverse. So <math> F </math> is a homeomorphism between the two spaces.  Quick question is there a nicer way of writing math than using the math tag?  [[User:Ian|Ian]] 16:03, 22 October 2010 (EDT)
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RE: 2) Let <math>F :\tilde R^n \rightarrow R^n</math> be defined as <math>F(x)= \prod_{i=1}^{n} \pi_i (x)</math> and let <math>F^{-1} : R^n \rightarrow \tilde R^n</math> be defined as <math>F^{-1}(x)= \prod_{i \in Z_+} f_i (x)</math>  where <math> f_i (x) = \pi_i (x) </math> if <math> 1 \le i \le n </math> and <math> f_i(x)=0 </math> otherwise.  Then both <math> F </math> and <math> F^{-1} </math> are continuous, because we are working in the product topology and the component functions, namely the projection function and constant function are continuous.  Also <math> F </math> is a bijection because <math> F(F^{-1}(x_1, \ldots, x_n))=(x_1, \ldots, x_n)  </math> and <math> F^{-1}(F(x_1, \ldots, x_n, 0,0, \ldots))=(x_1, \ldots, x_n, 0,0, \ldots)  </math>, i.e <math> F </math> has a left and right inverse. So <math> F </math> is a homeomorphism between the two spaces.  Quick question is there a nicer way of writing math than using the math tag?  [[User:Ian|Ian]] 16:03, 22 October 2010 (EDT)

Revision as of 16:12, 22 October 2010

Contents

Reading

Read sections 23 through 25 in Munkres' textbook (Topology, 2nd edition). Remember that reading math isn't like reading a novel! If you read a novel and miss a few details most likely you'll still understand the novel. But if you miss a few details in a math text, often you'll miss everything that follows. So reading math takes reading and rereading and rerereading and a lot of thought about what you've read. Also, preread sections 26 through 27, just to get a feel for the future.

Doing

Solve and submit problems 1-3 and 8-10 Munkres' book, pages 157-158.

Due date

This assignment is due at the end of class on Monday, October 25, 2010.

Suggestions for Good Deeds

Annotate our Monday videos (starting with Video: dbnvp Topology-100927) in a manner similar to (say) dbnvp AKT-090910-1, and/or add links to the blackboard shots, in a manner similar to dbnvp Alekseev-1006-1. Also, make constructive suggestions to me, Dror and / or the videographer, Qian (Sindy) Li, on how to improve the videos and / or the software used to display them. Note that "constructive" means also, "something that can be implemented relatively easily in the real world, given limited resources".

Dror's notes above / Student's notes below

Questions

1)Hi, quick question. I am wondering if the term test will cover the material on this assignment, or only the material before the assignment. Thanks! Jason.

2) In EXAMPLE 7 on page 151 Munkres claims that Rn~ is ['clearly' :)] homeomorphic to Rn: where Rn~ consists of all sequences x=(x1,x2,x3,...) with xi=0 for i>n, and Rn consists of all sequences x=(x1,x2,...xn). Why are they homeomorphic ?? Thank you kindly. Oliviu.

RE: 2) Let F :\tilde R^n \rightarrow R^n be defined as F(x)= \prod_{i=1}^{n} \pi_i (x) and let F^{-1} : R^n \rightarrow \tilde R^n be defined as F^{-1}(x)= \prod_{i \in Z_+} f_i (x) where  f_i (x) = \pi_i (x) if  1 \le i \le n and  f_i(x)=0 otherwise. Then both  F and  F^{-1} are continuous, because we are working in the product topology and the component functions, namely the projection function and constant function are continuous. Also  F is a bijection because  F(F^{-1}(x_1, \ldots, x_n))=(x_1, \ldots, x_n)  and  F^{-1}(F(x_1, \ldots, x_n, 0,0, \ldots))=(x_1, \ldots, x_n, 0,0, \ldots)  , i.e  F has a left and right inverse. So  F is a homeomorphism between the two spaces. Quick question is there a nicer way of writing math than using the math tag? Ian 16:03, 22 October 2010 (EDT)