0708-1300/not homeomorphic: Difference between revisions

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Please, read the following carefully. It can contain some mistake.
Please, read the following carefully. It can contain some mistake.


Assume <math>\~{f} : R^n --> R^m</math> is a homeomorphism. Since <math>\~{f}</math> is proper
Assume <math>\overline{f} : R^n --> R^m</math> is a homeomorphism. Since <math>\overline{f}</math> is proper we can extend it to a continuous map <math>f : S^n --> S^m</math> which in fact will be
we can extend it to a continuous map <math>f : S^n --> S^m</math> which in fact will be
a homeomorphism. Taking inverse if necessary we may assume <math>n < m</math>. Let
a homeomorphism. Taking inverse if necessary we may assume <math>n < m</math>. Let
<math>F : Sn × [0, 1] --> Sm</math> be a homotopy of <math>f</math> to a smooth map i.e. <math>F</math> is continuous, <math>F(x, 0) = f(x)</math> and <math>F(x, 1)</math> is smooth. Since <math>F(x, 1)</math> is smooth and <math>n < m</math> all of its image points are singular values and by Sard's theorem constitute a set of measure zero. Then there is a point in <math>S^m</math> not in the image of <math>F(x, 1)</math>, but the complement of that point is contractible. This means that we can extend <math>F</math> to <math>\overline{F} : Sn × [0, 2] --> S^m</math> to be a homotopy of <math>f</math> to a constant map. But then <math>f^{-1}\circ\overline{F}</math> is a contraction of <math>S^n</math> which is a contradiction with the fact that no such contraction exists.
<math>F : Sn × [0, 1] --> Sm</math> be a homotopy of <math>f</math> to a smooth map i.e. <math>F</math> is continuous,
<math>F(x, 0) = f(x)</math> and <math>F(x, 1)</math> is smooth. Since <math>F(x, 1)</math> is smooth and <math>n < m</math> all
of its image points are singular values and by Sard's theorem constitute a set
of measure zero. Then there is a point in <math>S^m</math> not in the image of <math>F(x, 1)</math>, but
the complement of that point is contractible. This means that we can extend
<math>F</math> to <math>\~{F} : Sn × [0, 2] --> S^m</math> to be a homotopy of <math>f</math> to a constant map. But then
<math>f^{-1}\circ\~{F}</math> is a contraction of <math>S^n</math> which is a contradiction with the fact that no
such contraction exists.

Revision as of 13:20, 18 November 2007

Please, read the following carefully. It can contain some mistake.

Assume is a homeomorphism. Since is proper we can extend it to a continuous map which in fact will be a homeomorphism. Taking inverse if necessary we may assume . Let Failed to parse (syntax error): {\displaystyle F : Sn × [0, 1] --> Sm} be a homotopy of to a smooth map i.e. is continuous, and is smooth. Since is smooth and all of its image points are singular values and by Sard's theorem constitute a set of measure zero. Then there is a point in not in the image of , but the complement of that point is contractible. This means that we can extend to Failed to parse (syntax error): {\displaystyle \overline{F} : Sn × [0, 2] --> S^m} to be a homotopy of to a constant map. But then Failed to parse (syntax error): {\displaystyle f^{-1}\circ\overline{F}} is a contraction of which is a contradiction with the fact that no such contraction exists.